by starting this post, u are oredi trying to stir up "something"Originally posted by Seifer:Let me start off by saying that this posting is not intend as a flame bait or to offend anybody.
This is interesting. I ever came across this two verses but never really understand. Now that you actually mention it, I started to see something...Originally posted by Seifer:I have also found few verses which seem to suggest that for those who died without having the chance to know Jesus will be given a chance even after their death. But bear in mind that this is different from those who knew but rejected.
JOHN 5:25 - I tell you the truth, a time is coming and has now come when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God and those who hear will live.
JOHN 5:28 - Do not be amazed at this, for a time is coming when all who are in their graves will hear his voice and come out - those who have done good will rise to live, and those who have done evil will rise to be condemned.
John 5:28 seems to suggest that those who died without knowing him will be judged by their deeds.
Any comments?
Originally posted by FireIce:by starting this post, u are oredi trying to stir up "something"
dun need to put up excuse..
u see tt the forum is bery peaceful now and u cannot tahan, so mux make history repeat itself....
REV 20:12-15 - And I saw the dead, great and small standing before the throne, and books were opened. Another book was opened, which is the book of life. The dead were judged according to what they had done as recorded in the books. The sea gave up the dead that were in it, and death and Hades gave up the dead that were in them, and each person was judged according to what he had done. Then death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. The lake of fire is the second death. If anyone's name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire.Originally posted by Rapture:just asking, Seifer, in 5:28 "those who have done good will rise to live"
what does that "live" means do you know?
does it means live on earth or does it mean elsewhere?
5:28 "those who have done good will rise to live" about those who have done "good"Originally posted by Seifer:REV 20:12-15 - And I saw the dead, great and small standing before the throne, and books were opened. Another book was opened, which is the book of life. The dead were judged according to what they had done as recorded in the books. The sea gave up the dead that were in it, and death and Hades gave up the dead that were in them, and each person was judged according to what he had done. Then death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. The lake of fire is the second death. If anyone's name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire.
Based on the above, my own deduction is that "rise to live" means that you will have ur name written into the book of life. This means that you will not suffer the second death and be thrown into the lake of fire.
Comments?
Hi Seifer,Originally posted by Seifer:REV 20:12-15 - And I saw the dead, great and small standing before the throne, and books were opened. Another book was opened, which is the book of life. The dead were judged according to what they had done as recorded in the books. The sea gave up the dead that were in it, and death and Hades gave up the dead that were in them, and each person was judged according to what he had done. Then death and Hades were thrown into the lake of fire. The lake of fire is the second death. If anyone's name was not found written in the book of life, he was thrown into the lake of fire.
Based on the above, my own deduction is that "rise to live" means that you will have ur name written into the book of life. This means that you will not suffer the second death and be thrown into the lake of fire.
Comments?
Frankly speaking, ur guess is as good as mine. I supposed he must be judged righteous when compared to the law.Originally posted by Rapture:5:28 "those who have done good will rise to live" about those who have done "good"
what is that "good" means? what is the definition of it ?
I can only try my best to answer ur queries.Originally posted by yidd:Hi Seifer,
Answer these questions:
1. Do you think Original Sin applies to ALL humans? In short, is it universal?
2. Do Jews believe in Original Sin?
3. When was the doctrine of Original Sin first formulated?
4. Are infants subject to Original Sin? In short, if they die "unbaptized" (in whatever myriad forms this "cleansing" takes today), do they go to hell, heaven, or that medevial concept called limbo?
then I really wonder...how many people can really make it when compared to the law.........Originally posted by Seifer:Frankly speaking, ur guess is as good as mine. I supposed he must be judged righteous when compared to the law.
From what I found out, the Jews does not believe in Original sin. That's why they believe they do not need Jesus to die for them for their salvation and they wanted the Romans to crucify Jesus instead because they hated Him. The Jews wanted a Messiah who punish the Jew's enemies, NOT someone who heals the blind and mute, NOT someone who is willing to be crucified by the Romans (also the Jew's enemies) to die for them.Originally posted by yidd:Hi Seifer,
Answer these questions:
2. Do Jews believe in Original Sin?
People like Abraham lorOriginally posted by Rapture:then I really wonder...how many people can really make it when compared to the law.........
"Sin came into the world through one man, and death came through sin, and so death spread to ALL because ALL have sinned." (Romans 5:12)Originally posted by Seifer:I can only try my best to answer ur queries.
1. My personal belief is that Original Sin refers to man's sinful nature. As such, I believed that ALL humans have it.
2. No idea.
3. No idea. I can try to find out.
4. Like I have mentioned, my personal belief is that Original sin refers to the sinful nature. Therefore babies are bornt with this sinful nature. But they are born sinless, coz while they have this sinful nature, they have not 'activated' it yet.
The following verse is also very interesting.Originally posted by Rapture:then I really wonder...how many people can really make it when compared to the law.........
You are right. Sin came into this world thru one man, and death is the result of sin. But HOW did sin come into this world? Because we all inherited the sinful nature of Adam. It is this sinful nature that causes us to sin. Therefore all who sinned will die.Originally posted by yidd:"Sin came into the world through one man, and death came through sin, and so death spread to ALL because ALL have sinned." (Romans 5:12)
hmmmmmmmm...........Originally posted by Seifer:The following verse is also very interesting.
1 Peter 4:5,6 - But they will have to give account to him who is ready to judge the living and the dead. For this is the reason the gospel was preached even to those who are now dead, so that they might be judged according to men in regard to the body, but live according to God in regard to the spirit.
The answer is nooneOriginally posted by Rapture:then I really wonder...how many people can really make it when compared to the law.........
"Sin came into the world through one man, and death came through sin, and so death spread to ALL because ALL have sinned." (Romans 5:12)Originally posted by Seifer:There is another interesting verse
Ecc 7:29 - This only have I found: God made mankind upright, but men have gone in search of many schemes.
This verse clearly suggests that men was born without sin. Coz if they are, then they cannot be upright.